What is the remainder of 24 divided by 5?
4
What is the quotient of 28 divided by 5?
The result of division of 285 is 5 with a remainder of 3 .
How do you calculate divided?
Dividing when the divisor is more than one digit, like 63.
- Setup the division problem (2856/84).
- Divide 285 by 84 to get 3.
- Multiply the 3 and 84 to get 252.
- Subtract 285 and 252 to get 33.
- Carry down the 6.
- Divide 336 by 84 to get 4.
- Multiply 4 and 84 to get 336.
- Subtract 336 and 336 to get 0.
WHAT IS A divided by B?
The notation “a | b” is read “a divides b”, which is a statement — a complete sentence which could be either true or false. On the other hand, “a ÷ b” is read “a divided by b”. This is an expression, not a complete sentence. Compare “6 divides 18” with “18 divided by 6” and be sure you understand the difference.
What do we call a number after 1 is divided by it?
In each division problem, you will have one number divided by another. The number you are dividing is called the dividend. The number you are “dividing by” is the divisor. The answers to your division problems are called quotients.
How do you divide numbers easily?
More Divide by Number Tricks
- Divide by 1 – Anytime you divide by 1, the answer is the same as the dividend.
- Divide by 2 – If the last digit in the number is even, then the entire number is divisible by 2.
- Divide by 4 – If the last two digits divide by 4, then the entire number is divisible by 4.
When a number is divided by itself the quotient is?
What is the quotient when you divide a number by itself? Dividing any number (except 0) by itself produces a quotient of 1. Also, any number divided by 1 produces a quotient of the number.
What is the quotient when a number other than 1 is divided by 1?
Hence, when any number is divided by 1, the quotient is the number itself.
When a number is divided by itself the quotient is zero?
in easy words if any non zero is divided by itself then quotient would be zero.
Why is a number divided by itself 1?
If you multiply the quotient by the divisor, its product will be the dividend. (Multiplication is an inverse operation of division.) Any number, except zero, divided by itself is 1. Any number divided by 1 is that number.
Can zero be divided by zero?
They say zero divided by anything is zero. However, some say anything divided by zero is undefined, since 4/0 and 5/0 are and so on. If 0/0 is 1, then 1 times 0 is , so it is correct. If 0/0 is 0, then 0 times 0 is 0, so it is also correct.
What is a divided by 1?
Do you notice something interesting here? It appears that when we are dividing by 1, it equals the number we are dividing. From this, we can create this rule: Any number divided by 1 equals itself.
What is infinity divided 1?
Infinity is a concept, not a number; therefore, the expression 1/infinity is actually undefined. In mathematics, a limit of a function occurs when x gets larger and larger as it approaches infinity, and 1/x gets smaller and smaller as it approaches zero.
What is 3 divided by infinity?
Zero
Is 1 to the infinity indeterminate?
Forms that are not Indeterminate Quotient: The fractions 0 ∞ \frac0{\infty} ∞0 and 1 ∞ \frac1{\infty} ∞1 are not indeterminate; the limit is 0 0 0. The fractions 1 0 \frac10 01 and ∞ 0 \frac{\infty}0 0∞ are not indeterminate. If the denominator is positive, the limit is ∞ \infty ∞.
Is infinity minus 1 still infinity?
Infinity is not a number is a concept, but let’s imagine one infinity made out of numbers from 0 to infinity: You will have th following list: 0, 1, 2 ,3…followed by a never ending list of numbers. So in this case, this infinity minus one is still infinity.
Why is 0 to the power indeterminate?
When calculus books state that 00 is an indeterminate form, they mean that there are functions f(x) and g(x) such that f(x) approaches 0 and g(x) approaches 0 as x approaches 0, and that one must evaluate the limit of [f(x)]g(x) as x approaches 0. In fact, 00 = 1! …
Why is 1 to the Power Infinity indeterminate?
For example, limn→∞(1+1n)n=e≈2.. limn→∞(1+1n)√n=0, so a limit of the form (1) always has to be evaluated on its own merits; the limits of f and g don’t by themselves determine its value.
Is 0 divided by infinity indeterminate?
0 < f(x)/g(x) < f(x). Hence f(x)/g(x) gets squeezed between 0 and f(x), and f(x) is approaching zero. Thus f(x)/g(x) must also approach zero as x approaches a. If this is what you mean by “dividing zero by infinity” then it is not indeterminate, it is zero.
What is the value of infinity divided by infinity?
Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.
What is 2 to the power infinity?
Although, (something)^infinity=infinity in general. And here we can prove it as follows.. Here look the infinity means a very very large quantity that means unreachable quantity so simply, {something}^infinity= a very very large quantity(unreachable) that means infinity. So clearly 2^infinity=infinity.