Can anyone or someone help?
Anyone is a pronoun that means “any person.” So if you would like help from a person and you don’t care who that person is, then you would like help from anyone. In this sense, that anyone is not important, because anyone will do. Anybody is a pronoun that is interchangeable with anyone. …
Has anyone seen or saw?
Saw is the PAST TENSE of the verb see, and usually comes immediately after NOUNS and PRONOUNS. Seen is the PAST PARTICIPLE of the VERB see. Generally, seen is used alongside have, has, had, was or were in a sentence to make COMPOUND VERBS. USAGE: saw : This word is a stand-alone VERB.
Do I say I seen or saw?
In standard English, it’s “I’ve seen” not “I’ve saw.” The helping verb “have” (abbreviated here to “’ve”) requires “seen.” In the simple past (no helping verb), the expression is “I saw,” not “I seen.” “I’ve seen a lot of ugly cars, but when I saw that old beat-up Rambler I couldn’t believe my eyes.”
Is it OK to say I seen?
“I saw” is the only correct way to say this. “Seen” cannot stand alone, so “I seen” is incorrect. “I saw” is the simple past tense, first person singular of “to see.” Never use “I seen” unless you are writing a novel with dialogue spoken by uneducated characters.
Why do Americans say seen instead of SAW?
No because seen usually needs to be used as a compound verb ( preceeded by had,has, have, was, were…) While saw needs to be used alone, following a pronoun ( I, you, he, she, it). “I’ve” as you probably know is a contraction of “I have” making it correct. It’s just dialect.
Why do people use seen wrong?
It is grammatically incorrect and it is possibly even more common than people saying things like “could of” and “should of.” So, why is it wrong? “Seen” is a verb form known as a past participle, which is meant to indicate that an action is completed. That’s because a past participle should not be used on its own.
Is I just seen correct?
I just seen (in your question) = This is incorrect. Some uneducated native speakers may say this, but it is completely ungrammatical. You should never use this form.
Is I had seen proper grammar?
As noted by others, the correct form is the simple past tense: “Yesterday, I saw him for the first time…”, not the past perfect tense: “Yesterday, I had seen him for the first time…”. You are just describing something that happened yesterday so the simple past tense is the right one to use.
What tense is have seen?
present perfect tense
Has or have after years?
“A short ten years has brought us to this point.” “An arduous ten years have passed.” Here in #2 it(Ten year’s) modified by article that makes it countable. So there should be Has in both sentences of example #2.
Has or have for years?
The “two” before years indicates a plural noun, which necessitates a plural of the verb “to have”. Conversely, you would say “One year has passed”. It is “Two years have passed”, but it is not as simple as the other answers suggest, because “Two years is a long time” is also correct, and no, I do not know why!